| Questions and answers
from The
Mail Bag This column
is
conducted much
like a blog.
The more recent letters are at the top with earlier ones
descending in order below. Neither the questions nor the replies
should become dated, unless, of course the Rapture takes place. In that
case we would hope that you have "studied to
shew thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be
ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth." All answers to
questions given in this column come from the King James
Bible with the understanding of the distinctive ministry and
message given to Paul, the apostle of the Gentiles. If you have a
bible doctrinal question you would like answered here just click and
send your question by email.
If
we deem it of sufficient general interest it will be included here, and
if not you will still get
your answer.
I have heard it said
that at the Rapture there will be no graves bursting open. Please
explain these verses:
Matthew 27:52 And the graves were opened;
and many bodies of the saints which slept arose,
Matthew 27:53
And came out of the graves after his resurrection, and went into the
holy city, and appeared unto many.
This is an account of a bodily
resurrection. Those people were restored to physical life...in the same
way that Lazarus was. Obviously Lazarus died at some point later on. We
don't have a 2000 year old man walking around somewhere do we?
At the Rapture of the church we get a new
body. Every indication is that it is already there, waiting for us, as
in 2 Corinthians 5:1.
There is
no scriptural evidence that at the Rapture graves will burst open and
decayed corpses will be revived. Paul said that we are "confident and
willing" to be absent from the body and present with the Lord. That
happens immediately at death or at the Rapture.
Explain the
marriage supper of the body of Christ.
Marriage supper? You mean the one in the
book of Revelation? That's Israel in Revelation, that is not the
church, the body of Christ.
All of
the bride, bridegroom, and marriage passages in the bible refer to
Israel and not to the church, the body of Christ. As saved individuals
we are already joined to Christ. We are members of his body, of his
flesh and of his bones. The body of Christ is positively masculine. It
is one new man.
Being
already joined to Christ, forever and for all eternity, there is no
reason for the body of Christ to ever need to be married to him or
joined to him ever again.
In
Jeremiah 31:32 we find that God was "an husband" to Israel. In the book
of Hosea, Hosea is a type of God the father. His wife, Gomer, is a type
of Israel. She is unfaithful. God puts her away.
We find that there was a divorce. See
Isaiah 50:1 and Jeremiah 3:8 and 20. Then there will be a future
remarriage as in Hosea 2:14-20. Notice that the "children of the
bridechamber" are the children of Israel in Luke 6:34. The Lord was
with Israel in Matthew, Mark, Luke and John. He was not with the
Gentiles, nor the church, the body of Christ.
We meet the Lord at the Rapture, not the
wedding.
Have
not all believers from Pentecost on
received the same Spirit?
You are correct in saying
that there is only one Spirit of God and that is the Holy Spirit. It is
incorrect, however, to assume that the baptism of Acts chapter two is
the same baptism as that of 1 Corinthians 12:13.
The baptism in
Acts chapter two was a "power" baptism. It was for the power they would
need for their ministry. The risen Lord had told them that they would
receive power "after that the Holy Ghost is come upon you: and ye shall
be WITNESSES unto me." The word "witness" carries the idea of being a
martyr. And that is exactly what they became, beginning with Stephen in
Acts chapter seven and then James in Acts chapter twelve.
Notice
also that the baptism in Acts is different, and the BAPTIZOR is also
different. In Acts chapter two, the Lord Jesus Christ himself is the
baptizor. He baptized 12 Jewish men WITH the Holy Ghost. Notice the
verse:
Acts 1:5 For John truly baptized with water; but ye shall
be baptized with the Holy Ghost not many days hence.
The one who
did the baptizing was the Lord himself. Peter said, in Acts 2:33 that
Jesus Christ, having received of the Father the promise of the Holy
Ghost, has SHED FORTH this which ye now see and hear. Christ was the
one who did the baptizing and they were baptized WITH the Holy Ghost.
That
is not the case in 1 Corinthians 12:13 where believers are baptized
INTO the body of Christ.
1 Corinthians 12:13 For by one Spirit
are we all baptized into one body, whether we be Jews or Gentiles,
whether we be bond or free; and have been all made to drink into one
Spirit.
Notice that we are baptized BY THE SPIRIT, not WITH but
BY. So it is the Spirit who does the baptizing in our case. The baptism
is different than that of Acts chapter two and the one doing the
baptizing is also different.
The
Lord Jesus said I will build my "church" not my "churches".
He did not start one church and then another did he?
Yes
indeed he did. In Matthew, Mark, Luke and John the ministry of Jesus
Christ was to Israel and to Israel alone. In Matthw 10:5 he told the
twelve "go not into the way of the Gentiles." In Matthew 15:24 he told
a Gentile woman, "I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of
Israel." Paul, in Romans 15:8 says that "Jesus Christ was a minister of
the circumcision." His ministry was to Israel and he was "confirming
the promises made unto the fathers," as in Abraham, Isaac and Jacob
being the fathers of the nation of Israel. So the ministry of Christ
was to Israel and to Israel alone.
The message of Matthew, Mark,
Luke and John was "the gospel of the Kingdom" and that was also Peter's
message in the book of Acts. But when the Lord raised up Paul and sent
him forth, Paul had a different message. His message was about a joint
body of believers called the church, the body of Christ. The church the
body of Christ CANNOT be the same as the "holy nation and royal
priesthood" Peter speaks of in 1 Peter 2:9
How can you possibly
be a member of a holy nation while at the same time be a member of a
joint body in which there is no nationality? There is neither Jew nor
Gentile, male nor female, bond nor free. We are all one in Christ Jesus.
Yes,
there IS more than one church in the bible. The church, the body of
Christ, began with Paul. It is the THIRD church of the bible. There is
the Jewish Kingdom church of Matthew 16 to which believers were added
in the book of Acts. The other one being the "church in the wilderness"
of which Moses was the head.
A
dispensation of the gospel may have been
committed to Paul, but wasn't it revealed to all the apostles, as in
Ephesians 3:5?
Ephesians 3:5 states that it is NOW
REVEALED unto his holy apostles and prophets by the Spirit. The
question is...which apostles? There were 12 apostles in Matthew, Mark,
Luke and John and there were 12 apostles in the book of Acts, Matthias
replacing Judas in Acts chapter one.
However Paul is not a part
of that group. Also, there are a number of other men who are called
apostles who were not a part of the 12 but rather were associated with
Paul. In Acts 14:4 and 14 Barnabas is an apostle. In 1 Corinthians 4:6
and 9, Apollos is an apostle, and in 1 Thessalonians 1:1 and 2:6
Silvanus and Timotheus are apostles. All of these men are associated
with Paul who is THE apostle of the Gentiles. After the Lord ascended
into heaven he gave gifts. He gave to the church, the body of Christ,
apostles, prophets, evangelists, pastors and teachers. (Ephesians
4:11-12)
So the question is, which apostles are in view and
exactly when is it that it is NOW revealed? That was not during the
time period of the book of Acts. The book of Ephesians was written to
people Paul did not know, as in Ephesians 1:15, but yet at the time of
Acts 19 he had established a church at Ephesus. He spent a total of
three years in Asia at that time. The Ephesian epistle was probably the
second to last epistle Paul wrote, the final one being 2 Timothy. See
Tychicus in Ephesians 6:21-22 compared to 2 Timothy 4:12.
But Peter was also aware because he said:
Acts:15:11: But we [i.e. Peter and the
apostles] believe that through the grace of the Lord Jesus Christ we
[i.e. Jews ] shall be saved, even as they [i.e. Gentiles].
Notice
that Peter says that we (his group of believers, the Jewish Kingdom
church) SHALL BE SAVED. That is in contrast to Ephesians 2:8 where Paul
that by grace ARE YE SAVED. Shall be and are saved are not the same. If
you compare 1 Peter 1:5, 9 and 13 you can clearly see that Peter is
enduring to the end for grace at the end. That is in one accord with
the Jewish tribulation message of Matthew 24:13, that "he that shall
endure to the end SHALL BE saved." Those in the church, the body of
Christ are already saved, and sealed unto the day of redemption.
Scripture tells me that the church began at
Pentecost and that the Gentiles were added to it, i.e. made fellowheirs
and partakers of the promise.
Nothing new began on a
Jewish holy day called Pentecost in Acts chapter two. On that day there
were three thousand people ADDED to an already existing church. The
church was a Jewish church, the church of Matthew 16. It has a name. In
Acts 8:1 it is identified as the "church which was at Jerusalem."
Ephesians
3:6 should not be confused with the Jewish church Peter preached to in
the book of Acts. That was a Jewish Kingdom church, looking for their
Messiah to return and restore the Kingdom again to Israel, as in Acts
1:6.
The Gentiles of Ephesians 3:6 becane fellowheirs and of
the SAME BODY...in other words the same body of Christ that began with
Paul and had previously included the Romans, the Corinthians, the
Galatians and the Thessalonians. The Ephesian Gentiles to whom Paul
wrote the Ephesian letter were ALIENS from Israel. The others just
mentioned were not. The Ephesians were not IN the promises, the others
were. Hence you have the mystery Paul discusses, particularly in
Ephesians chapter three which was HID IN GOD, not in scripture.
If
everybody who was saved by the gospel that Paul preached is a member of
the ONE body and whoever preached this salvation message got it from
Paul, then where does that leave everyone saved before Paul? Are they
not in the same body?
There was nobody SAVED before Paul.
People
before Paul were baptized for the REMISSION of sins, looking forward to
a future day of atonement for the nation of Israel at the second coming
of Christ. At that time their sins would be "blotted out" as in Acts
3:19-21. Peter's message in the book of Acts and in 1 and 2 Peter is
consistently the tribulation message of Matthew 24. The bible, for
instance, doesn't say in Acts chapter two that 3000 people got saved
and "joined the church." They were ADDED to an already existing church,
a Jewish church. They would not be saved until the end, until the
second coming of Christ. They would have all died in faith, looking for
the resurrection of Revelation 20:4
What
about Galatians 6:16?
Galatians
6:16 And as many as walk according to this rule, peace be on them, and
mercy, and upon the Israel of God.
One sure way for you to know that the Israel of God is not the same as
the church the body of Christ is by the doctrine. The doctrine of
Hebrews through Revelation, written to the "Israel of God", is
different than the doctrine Paul calls "this rule" in the verse.
This rule would be Paul's rule and would be the doctrine he has laid
out in Galatians. It is decidedly different than the doctrine of Israel
found in Hebrews through Revelatlion.
The verse shows that there are two groups, two different bodies of
believers, in existence during the time that Israel, as a nation, was
still intact. Galatians was written during that period. The Israel of
God is one group, following the "rule" of the 12 Apostles and the
second group is the church, the body of Christ, following the doctrine
committed to Paul.
The salvatlion of Israel is at the second coming of Christ, as in
Peter's mesage in Acts 3:19-21 and 1 Peter 1:13. But the salvation of
the church, the body of Christ is a present posession. We look back to
the cross and trust in the finished work of Christ in dying for our
sins, all of them, and being raised again for our justification. (1
Corinthians 15:1-4 and Romans 4:25, along with Ephesians 1:7)
Is Israel being regathered
today? What does the bible say?
Hosea 1:9 Then said God,
Call his name Loammi: for ye are not my people, and I will not be your
God.
Luke 21:6 As for these things which ye behold, the days
will come, in the which there shall not be left one stone upon another,
that shall not be thrown down.
Luke 21:24 And they shall fall by
the edge of the sword, and shall be led away captive into all nations:
and Jerusalem shall be trodden down of the Gentiles, until the times of
the Gentiles be fulfilled.
In A.D. 70 Titus and the Roman Army
came to Jerusalem and perhaps as many as a million or more people "fell
by the edge of the sword." The Jewish temple was totally demolished,
stone by stone, the city was burned to the ground and then PLOWED
UNDER. Many of the Jews were taken captive and Israel was cast away and
scattered among the nations.
There is no such thing as the
"Israel of God" visible today. The present day "state of Israel" which
you see on television nightly news is the result of politically
motivated people, who after many years of effort succeeded in gaining
enough worldwide political influence so that the United Nations, by a
POLITICAL ACTION.....not an ACT OF GOD....created the present day
"state of Israel' in 1948.
The present day "state of Israel" is
NOT the Israel of the bible. It is a politically and socially motivated
"state" made up of non-believers for the most part, although there are
some religious Jews in the "holy land."
When GOD restores
Israel, you won't have to consult the newspaper or television. But, the
good news is.....the body of Christ won't be here. The RAPTURE comes
first.
The ABSOLUTE guidline for the fulfillment of the prophecy
pertaining to Israel is Daniel chapter 11...which involves TWO MIDDLE
EAST KINGS....not the United Nations, the United States, Great Britain,
the European Common Market or ANY European mystical leader...as all
the books and prophecy preachers proclaim. NOTHING which happened in
A.D. 70 or which has happened SINCE meets the requirements of the
prophecy of Daniel chapter eleven.
Explain rightly dividing the word of truth
To
rightly divide the word of truth is NOT to divide the bible, chop the
bible, or pick and choose doctrine based on "word studies." When Paul
uses the phrase in 2 Timothy 2:15 it has a very specific meaning, which
he defines in Ephesians 1:13 as "the word of truth, the GOSPEL OF YOUR
SALVATION."
2 Timothy 2:15 Study to shew thyself approved unto
God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the
word of truth.
Ephesians 1:13 In whom ye also trusted, after
that ye heard the word of truth, the gospel of your salvation: in whom
also after that ye believed, ye were sealed with that holy Spirit of
promise,
There are OTHER gospels in the bible which are NOT the
gospel of YOUR salvation. Only Paul has the gospel of your salvation,
and Paul says to rightly divide it. By that it means to separate out
from other gospels and other doctrine you find elsewhere in the bible,
other than the books written by Paul, Romans through Philemon.
The
gospel of your salvation is that preached by Paul, that Christ died for
our sins, he was buried, and three days and three nights later he rose
from the dead. In Romans 4:25 Paul says he was "delivered for our
offenses and was raised again for our justification." In other words
your salvation is complete simply by trusting Jesus Christ as your
Saviour.
Does graffed in to the
olive tree make us spiritual Jews?
Some think that. But
the truth we find in Romans 11 neither makes a member of the body of
Christ a "spiritual Jew" nor "spiritual Israel." It is clear that the
book of Romans was written to Gentiles, as in Romans 1:13 and 11:13.
But those Gentiles were already in that "graffed in" position as Paul
wrote the letter.
They are Gentiles who "call themselves Jews"
as in Romans 2:17. There is a difference in being a Jew and calling
yourself a Jew. A person who called himself a Jew would be one who had
converted to the Jews religion. In other words he would be a proselyte.
They were the ones who were in that "graffed in" position. They were
already there as Paul sat down and began to write the letter.
In
the bible, the fig tree, the olive tree and the vine always represent
Israel. They never represent the church, the body of Christ. The olive
tree in Romans 11 represents Israel and those Gentiles were in it.
Nobody has ever been "graffed in" to the body of Christ and nobody can
ever be broken off. People are BAPTIZED, by the Spirit, into the body
of Christ, as in 1 Corinthians 12:13, not graffed.
The people
Paul wrote that to had a faith, in something. But it was not Paul's
gospel and hence they were not established. Paul said in Romans 1:
Romans
1:11 For I long to see you, that I may impart unto you some spiritual
gift, to the end ye may be established;
And then he said in
Romans 16:
Romans 16:25 Now to him that is of power to stablish
you according to my gospel, and the preaching of Jesus Christ,
according to the revelation of the mystery, which was kept secret since
the world began,
The "spiritual gift" Paul imparted to them was
MY gospel, Paul's gospel, called the gospel of Christ in Romans 1:16,
and it is the power of God unto salvation to every one who believes it.
Paul wanted those people to believe his gospel, not the previous gospel
of the Kingdom preached by the 12 Apostles. The doctrine in the book of
Romans established those who would believe it.
So instead of
being "graffed in" to an olive tree, we are baptized into the body of
Christ and identifed with him in his death, burial and resurrection. We
are complete in Him.
The olive tree of Romans 11 does not exist
today and nobody is in it. If you are saved you are a member of the
church, which is the body of Christ and sealed there unto the day of
redemption.
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